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5 Kommentare
Source: [OECD statistics](https://data-explorer.oecd.org/vis?fs%5B0%5D=Topic%2C1%7CEconomy%23ECO%23%7CNational%20accounts%23ECO_NAD%23&fs%5B1%5D=Topic%2C3%7CEconomy%23ECO%23%7CNational%20accounts%23ECO_NAD%23%7CGDP%20and%20non-financial%20accounts%23ECO_NAD_GNF%23%7CGDP%20and%20components%23ECO_NAD_GNF_GDP%23&pg=0&fc=Topic&snb=21&df%5Bds%5D=dsDisseminateFinalDMZ&df%5Bid%5D=DSD_NAMAIN10%40DF_TABLE1_EXPENDITURE_HVPVOB&df%5Bag%5D=OECD.SDD.NAD&df%5Bvs%5D=2.0). I used Excel for the chart and selected all the countries with at least 10M inhabitants and a GDP per capita at least 60% the US‘ one in 1970.
Important to consider that the economy in the US is increasingly K-shaped, with increasingly unequal wealth and income distribution, and stagnant salaries. Second, a lot of the GDP growth now also comes from the datacenter craze which tbf is unclear whether it has a positive ROI.
I think a log y-axis would be nice for this data to easily see how the growth changes over time, but a nice graph overall
If this is mean and not median it’s useless… I don’t care which country has the most billionaires that pull up the average.
Economist here, this is a reasonable representation of a country’s mean output and how much you can buy with said output in the country.
The real part means it is adjusted for inflation. So keeps everything in the today’s dollars I believe.
Some crucial things to think about is what do you want to say with this data? Do you want to say that country X has higher growth than country Y due to the slopes, indicating a healthier economy. I’d say that would be a reasonable assumption, barring some technicalities in domestic vs international market differences, and differences in capital vs current accounts that we don’t need to get into.
Can you say that country X on average can produce more value in their domestic economy than country Y? Yes I’d say that is possible here too.
What you cannot say is that this translates to economic well-being for the typical citizen. For that comparison economists tend to use median disposable household income, then make it comparable using Purchasing Power Parity PPP. Even better is to equalise by working hours, since people work very different hours by country and leisure has value too. You can also flip the script and look at consumption too which has advantages
So realistically the best measure for economic well-being isn’t actually a measure I have ever seen.
Median final total consumption in USD (assuming quality adjustments) per full time equivalent work week.